Suryananda, 

Law in the Western hemisphere, particularly in Britain and the USA is based on Jewish legal development as mentioned in the Old Testament. For instance, the rule of "Thou shalt not kill," pertains to the killing of human beings only, not to any other species because the other species, the animals have no souls.

Other laws in the West evolved from the Jewish judicial development. Thus laws are underlined by religious approvals and suggestions. The USA is not a country which was founded on the basis of secular law. The situation is that secular law was formed from religious stipulations. That still holds today.

The farce is that people are told and they believe that the US Constitution is a document which has no religious bias. That is not true. Why do most people who have to swear-in or swear before a court, given a bible to use as the reference?

The constitution does have religious bias but there is a national dishonesty where no one wants to say that it has that because then it will be found to be imperfect and that will be a let-down.

Why up to this day, they do not use the Constitution instead of the bible as the reference?